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Is Angular momentum conserved in Impure rolling


Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?Conservation of angular momentum across different reference frames?Conservation of angular momentum during rollingRolling without slipping taking the contact point as pivotAngular momentum of rolling sphereConservation of Angular Momentum in different casesAbout what point is angular momentum conserved?Sphere rolling up a stepIs angular momentum conserved if centripetal force is increased?Is angular momentum conserved in this system?Problem regarding concept of conservation of angular momentum













5












$begingroup$


In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.



What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_com = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.



But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.



edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
    $endgroup$
    – Mick
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    3 mins ago















5












$begingroup$


In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.



What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_com = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.



But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.



edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
    $endgroup$
    – Mick
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    3 mins ago













5












5








5


1



$begingroup$


In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.



What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_com = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.



But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.



edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.



What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_com = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.



But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.



edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.







newtonian-mechanics angular-momentum rotational-dynamics






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 3 hours ago









Qmechanic

106k121941217




106k121941217






New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked 6 hours ago









Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge

362




362




New contributor




Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
    $endgroup$
    – Mick
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    3 mins ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
    $endgroup$
    – Mick
    6 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    3 mins ago







1




1




$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
6 hours ago





$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
6 hours ago













$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
3 mins ago




$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
3 mins ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.

To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.

That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
    $endgroup$
    – Lelouche Lamperouge
    4 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Where this pseudo-force comes from?
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    58 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
    $endgroup$
    – Farcher
    51 mins ago










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









5












$begingroup$

If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.

To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.

That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
    $endgroup$
    – Lelouche Lamperouge
    4 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Where this pseudo-force comes from?
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    58 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
    $endgroup$
    – Farcher
    51 mins ago















5












$begingroup$

If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.

To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.

That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
    $endgroup$
    – Lelouche Lamperouge
    4 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Where this pseudo-force comes from?
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    58 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
    $endgroup$
    – Farcher
    51 mins ago













5












5








5





$begingroup$

If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.

To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.

That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.

To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.

That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 4 hours ago









FarcherFarcher

50.7k338105




50.7k338105











  • $begingroup$
    ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
    $endgroup$
    – Lelouche Lamperouge
    4 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Where this pseudo-force comes from?
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    58 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
    $endgroup$
    – Farcher
    51 mins ago
















  • $begingroup$
    ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
    $endgroup$
    – Lelouche Lamperouge
    4 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    Where this pseudo-force comes from?
    $endgroup$
    – Eli
    58 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    @Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
    $endgroup$
    – Farcher
    51 mins ago















$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
4 hours ago





$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
4 hours ago













$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
58 mins ago




$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
58 mins ago












$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
51 mins ago




$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
51 mins ago










Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.












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Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.














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